GRE真题9711

GRE最新练习题七(97.11) SECTION 1 Time—30 minutes 25 Questions 1. The Environmental Protection Agency must respond to the hazard to children's health posed by exposure to asbestos fibers released in the air in school classrooms. Since it is impossible to close school buildings, the best plan would be to initiate programs that mandate the immediate removal of asbestos from all the school buildings that are found to contain asbestos, regardless of whether or not the buildings are in use. Which of the following, if true, is the strongest reason for the Environmental Protection Agency not to follow the plan outlined above? (A) The techniques available for removing asbestos often increase the level of airborne asbestos. (B) Schools are places where asbestos is especially likely to be released into the air by the action of the occupants. (C) Children exposed to airborne asbestos run a greater risk of developing cancer than do adults exposed to airborne asbestos. (D) The cost of removing asbestos varies from school to school, depending on accessibility and the quantity of asbestos to be removed. (E) It is impossible to determine with any degree of certainty if and when construction materials that contain asbestos will break down and release asbestos fibers into the air. 2. Aedes albopictus, a variety of mosquito that has recently established itself in the southeastern United States, is less widespread than the indigenous swamp mosquito. Both the swamp mosquito and A. albopictus can carry viruses that are sometimes fatal to humans, but A. albopictus is a greater danger to public health. Each of the following, if true, provides additional information that strengthens the judgment given about the danger to public health EXCEPT: (A) Unlike the swamp mosquito, A. albopictus originated in Asia, and larvae of it were not observed in the United States before the mid- 1980's. (B) Unlike the swamp mosquito, A. albopictus tends to spend most of its adult life near human habitation. (C) Unlike swamp mosquito larvae, A. albopictus larvae survive in flower pots, tin cans, and many small household objects that hold a little water. (D) In comparison with the swamp mosquito, A. albopictus hosts a much wider variety of viruses known to cause serious diseases in humans. (E) A. albopictus seeks out a much wider range of animal hosts than does the swamp mosq- uito, and it is more likely to bite humans. Questions 3-8 The manager of a horse show is placing seven obstacles-one chicken coop, one gate, two stone walls, and three fences-on a jumping course that consists of seven positions, numbered and arranged consecutively from 1 to 7. The placement of the obstacles in the seven positions must conform to the following conditions: No two fences can be placed in consecutive positions. The stone walls must be placed in consecutive positions. 3. Which of the following is an acceptable placement of obstacles in the seven positions, in order from the first position to the last position on the course? (A) Chicken coop, fence, gate, stone wall, fence, stone wall, fence (B) Fence, gate, fence, fence, chicken coop, stone wall, stone wall (C) Fence, stone wall, stone wall, gate, chicken coop, fence, fence (D) Gate, stone wall, stone wall, fence, fence, chicken coop, fence (E) Stone wall, stone wall, fence, chicken coop, fence, gate, fence 4. If one of the fences is in the third position and another is in the sixth position, which of the following must be true? (A) The chicken coop is in the seventh position. (B) The gate is in the second position. (C) The gate is in the seventh position. (D) One of the stone walls is in the first position. (E) One of the stone walls is in the fourth position. 5. If one of the stone walls is in the seventh position, which of the following must be FALSE? (A) The chicken coop is in the second position. (B) The chicken coop is in the fourth position. (C) One of the fences is in the first position. (D) One of the fences is in the second position. (E) The gate is in the fourth position. 6. Which of the following CANNOT be the positions occupied by the three fences? (A) First, third, and fifth (B) First, third, and sixth (C) Second, fourth, and sixth (D) Second, fourth, and seventh (E) Third, fifth, and seventh 7. If a stone wall is placed immediately after the gate, which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the positions in which the gate can be placed? (A) Second, third (B) Second, fourth (C) Third, fourth (D) Second, third, fourth (E) Third, fourth, fifth 8. If the chicken coop is not placed immediately after any fence, which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the positions in which the chicken coop can be placed? (A) First, second, third (B) First, third, fourth (C) First, fourth, sixth (D) First, second, third, fourth (E) First, third, fourth, sixth 9. A person's cholesterol level will decline significantly if that person increases the number of meals eaten per day, but only if there is no significant increase in the amount of food eaten. However, most people who increase the number of meals they eat each day will eat a lot more food as well. If the statements above are true, which of the following is most strongly supported by them? (A) For most people, cholesterol level is not significantly affected by the amount of food eaten per day. (B) For most people, the amount of food eaten per meal is most strongly affected by the time of day at which the meal is eaten. (C) For most people, increasing the number of meals eaten per day will not result in a significantly lower cholesterol level. (D) For most people, the total amount of food eaten per day is unaffected by the number of meals eaten per day. (E) For most people, increasing the number of meals eaten per day will result in a significant change in the types of food eaten. 10. A certain type of dinnerware made in Ganandia contains lead. Lead can leach into acidic foods, and Ganandians tend to eat highly acidic foods. However, the extreme rarity of lead poisoning in Ganandia indicates that the dinnerware does not contain dangerous amounts of lead. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? (A) The dinnerware is produced exclusively for sale outside Ganandia. (B) Ganandian foods typically are much more acidic than foods anywhere else in the world. (C) The only source of lead poisoning in Ganandia is lead that has leached into food. (D) Most people who use the dinnerware are not aware that it contains lead. (E) Acidic foods can leach lead from dinnerware even if that dinnerware has a protective coating. Question 11 is based on the following graph. EFFECTIVENESS OF DRUG X IN ERADICATING A BACTERIAL LUNG INFECTION IN ADULT PATIENTS Point During the Course of the Infection at Which Drug X Was First Administered to Patients (in weeks following the onset of symptoms) 11. Drug X, which kills on contact the bacteria that cause the infection, is administered to patients by means of an aerosol inhaler. Which of the following, if true, contributes most to explaining the change in drug X's effectiveness during the course of the infection? (A) Symptoms of the infection usually become evident during the first 48 hours following infection. (B) Most patients with lung infections say they prefer aerosol inhalers to other means of administering antibacterial drugs. (C) In most patients taking drug X, the dosage administered is increased slightly each week until symptoms disappear. (D) In patients who have the infection, the ability to inhale becomes increasingly impaired beginning in the second week after the onset of symptoms. (E) Drug X is not administered to any patient who shows signs of suffering from secondary infections. 12. Sergeant Our police academy no longer requires its applicants to pass a physical examination before being admitted to the academy. As a result, several candidates with weak hearts and high blood pressure have been admitted. Hence, we can expect our future police force to have more health problems than our current police force. Knowledge of each of the following would be relevant to determining the reliability of the sergeant's prediction EXCEPT whether (A) police officer candidates are screened for high blood pressure before joining the police force (B) the police officer candidates who are not healthy now are likely to be unhealthy as police officers (C) graduates of the police academy are required to pass a physical examination (D) the health of the current police officer candidates is worse than was the health of police officer candidates in the past (E) a police officer's health is a reliable indicator of the officer's performance Questions 13-16 A transcontinental railroad train has exactly eight cars—J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and R—bound for several different destinations. The positions of the cars in any ordering of the train are numbered first through eighth from the front of the train. Because the cars will be detached at different points, certain ordering requirements must be met, as follows: J must be somewhere behind M in the train. K must be immediately in front of or immediately behind P. O must be in front of N, and exactly one car must be between them. R must be among the frontmost four cars and somewhere behind O. 13. Which of the following represents a possible order for the cars, from the front to the rear of the train? (A) L, M, O, R, N, J, K,P (B) M, K, P, O, R, N, L, J (C) M, L, O, R, N, K, J, P (D) O, R, M, N, P, K, J, L (E) P, K, R, L, O, M, N, J 14. If K is the first car, then the last car must be either (A) J or L (B) J or M (C) L or M (D) L or N (E) M or N 15. Which of the following can be neither the first nor the last car? (A) J (B) K (C) L (D) M (E) N 16. If R is somewhere behind N, which of the following must be true? (A) O is the first car. (B) M is the second car. (C) Either K or P is the last car. (D) L is one of the last four cars. (E) J is somewhere in front of K. Questions 17-22 A mining company is planning a survey of exactly six regions-F, G, H, I, K, and L-for deposits of platinum and uranium. Each region will contain one of four possible combinations of minerals-both platinum and uranium, neither platinum nor uranium, platinum and no uranium, or uranium and no platinum. Prior to conducting a detailed survey, the mining company has the following information: Exactly as many of the regions contain platinum deposits as contain uranium deposits. Region F contains exactly the same deposits as does region H. Regions G and I both contain uranium deposits. Regions H and K both contain platinum deposits. Regions G and L either both contain platinum deposits or neither of them does. 17. If there are exactly four regions that contain platinum deposits, these four could be (A) F, G, H, and K (B) F, G, H, and L (C) F, H, I, and K (D) F, H, K, and L (E) G, H, K, and L 18. If some region contains neither platinum deposits nor uranium deposits, it must be (A) F (B) G (C) H (D) I (E) L 19. If one of the six regions contains deposits of neither platinum deposits nor uranium deposits, which of the following CANNOT contain platinum deposits? (A) F (B) G (C) H (D) I (E) K 20. If exactly one region contains no platinum deposits, it must be (A) F (B) G (C) I (D) K (E) L 21. If K is the only region containing platinum deposits but no uranium deposits, which of the following must be two of the regions that contain both platinum deposits and uranium deposits? (A) F and G (B) F and H (C) G and L (D) H and I (E) I and L 22. If no region contains deposits of both platinum and uranium, which of the following must be true? (A) F contains uranium deposits. (B) G contains platinum deposits. (C) I contains platinum deposits. (D) K contains uranium deposits. (E) L contains uranium deposits. 23. Because adult iguanas on Plazos Island are much smaller than adult iguanas of the same species on nearby islands, researchers assumed that environmental conditions on Plazos favor the survival of relatively smaller baby iguanas (hatchlings) in each yearly brood. They discovered instead that for each of the past three years, 10 percent of the smaller and 40 percent of the larger hatchlings survived, because larger hatchlings successfully evade their predators. Which of the following, if true about Plazos but not about nearby islands, contributes most to an explanation of the long-standing tendency of iguanas on Plazos to be smaller than those of the same age on nearby islands? (A) Periodic wind shifts cause extended dry spells on Plazos every year, putting the larger iguanas, whose bodies require relatively more water, at a great disadvantage. (B) There are exactly three species of iguanas on Plazos but only two species of seagulls that feed on iguanas, and a relatively small percentage of each year's hatchlings are consumed by seagulls. (C) Wild cats, which were introduced as pets by early settlers and which were formerly major predators of Plazos iguanas, were recently killed off by a disease specific to cats. (D) The iguanas on Plazos are a relatively ancient part of the island's animal life. (E) Both land and marine iguanas live on Plazos, and the land iguanas tend to be larger than marine iguanas of the same age. 24. Every human being who has ever lived had two parents. Therefore, more people were alive three thousand years ago than are alive now. The reasoning in the argument is flawed because it (A) overlooks the number of people in each generation during the last three thousand years who left no descendants (B) disregards possible effects of disasters such as famines and plagues on human history (C) overestimates the mathematical effect of repeated doublings on population size (D) fails to take into account that people now alive have overlapping sets of ancestors (E) fails to consider that accurate estimation of the number of people alive three thousand years ago might be impossible 25. Each of the academic journals Thought and Ergo has a review committee to prevent misattributed quotations from appearing in its published articles. Nevertheless, about ten percent of the quotations in Thought's published articles are misattributed, whereas Ergo contains no misattributions. Ergo's committee is more effective, therefore, than Thought's at finding misattributed quotations. The argument above assumes that (A) most of the articles submitted to Thought for publication contain misattributed quotations (B) there are at least some misattributed quotations in articles submitted to Ergo for publication (C) the members of Ergo's committee are, on the whole, more knowledgeable than are the members of Thought's committee (D) the number of misattributed quotations in a journal is an accurate measure of how carefully that journal is edited (E) the authors who submit articles to Ergo for publication are more thorough in attributing quotations than are the authors who submit articles to Thought SECTION 2 Time—30 minutes 25 Questions 1. 60 percent of 16 10 O is the center of the circle and OS=SQ. 2. PQ OR n is an integer such that 10 x=3y 7. 20 percent of x 50 percent of y In a certain order of goods, of the items are shirts costing $18 each and of the items are hats costing $12 each. 8. The average (arithmetic $15 mean) cost per item in the order 9. The area of triangular Twice the area of region PRS triangular region PQR xy<0 10. x-y 0 11. The average (arithmetic 1 mean) of and d>0 12. The area of a circular The area of a square region with diameter region with diagonal of length d 13. 1 14. x y 15. (2x+3y) 4x +6xy+9y TEMPERATURES IN DEGREES FAHRENHEIT RECORDED AT NOON ON THE FIRST FOUR DAYS OF CERTAIN MONTHS Month Temperatures January 32,14,24,28 April 45,50,58,47 June 76,80,74,79 August 84,95,100,89 November 48,43,39,42 16. In a set of measurements, the range is defined as the greatest measurement minus the least measurement. According to the table above, during the first four days of which month was the range of temperatures at noon the greatest? (A) January Y (B) April (C) June (D) August (E) November 17. In the figure above, if QR=4 and PQ=3, then the (x,y) coordinates of point P are (A) (-4，4) (B) (-3,4) (C) (-3,3) (D) (-2,3) (E) (-2,4) 18. If x2=18, then ｜x｜= (A) -9 (B) 9 19. If y-2x=-6, then 8x-4y= (A) 24 (B) (C) 0 (D) - (E) -24 20. A car gets 22 miles per gallon using gasoline costing $1.10 per gallon. What is the approximate cost, in dollars, for driving the car x miles using this gasoline? (A) 0.50x (B) 0.30x (C) 0.11x (D) 0.10x (E) 0.05x Questions 21-25 refer to the following table. POPULATION DATA FOR TEN SELECTED STATES IN 1980 AND 1987 State Population(in thousands) Percent Change in Population, 1980-1987 Population Per Square Mile in 1987 1908 1987 A B C D E F G H I J 23, 668 17, 558 14, 229 9, 746 11, 864 11, 427 10, 798 9, 262 7, 365 5, 882 27, 663 17, 825 16, 789 12, 023 11, 936 11, 582 10. 784 9, 200 7, 672 6, 413 16, 9 1. 5 18. 0 23. 4 0. 6 1. 4 -0. 1 -0. 7 4. 2 9. 0 177 372 64 222 266 208 263 162 1, 027 131 21. Which of the following states had the most land area in 1987? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E 22. In 1987 the average (arithmetic mean) population of the three most populous of the ten selected states was most nearly equal to. (A) 18 million (B) 19 million (C) 20 million (D) 21 million (E) 22 million 23. If the land area of State J was the same in 1980 as it was in 1987, then the population square mile of State J in 1980 was most nearly equal to (A) 140 (B) 130 (C) 120 (D) 110 (E) 100 24. If ranked from highest to lowest according to population, how many of the ten states changed in rank from 1980 to 1987? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) Five 25. Of the following expressions, which represents the population per square mile of the region consisting of states B and E in 1987? 26. In the figure above, XYZW is a square with sides of length s. If YW is the arc of a circle with center X, which of the following is the area of the shaded region in terms of s? 27. In a graduating class of 236 students, 142 took algebra and 121 took chemistry. What is the greatest number of students that could have taken both algebra and chemistry? (A) 21 (B) 27 (C) 37 (D) 121 (E) 142 28. If one number is chosen at random from the first 1,000 positive integers, what is the probability that the number chosen is multiple of both 2 and 8? 29. The price of product R is 20 percent higher than the price of product S, which in turn is 30 percent higher than the price of product T. The price of product R is what percent higher than the price of product T? (A) 60% (B) 56% (C) 50% (D) 44% (E) 25% YX7 +6Y Y7X 30. In the sum above, if X and Y each denote one of the digits from 0 to 9, inclusive, then X= (A) 9 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 1 (E) 0 SECTION 5 Time —30 minutes 25 Questions Questions 1-6 Each of seven worker trainees —F, G, H, J, K, L, and P—will be assigned to one of four branch offices: Iowa, Maine, Texas, or Utah. The assignments will be subject to the following constraints: Each office must be assigned at least one trainee. Utah must be assigned exactly two trainees. F must be assigned to the same office as K. L cannot be assigned to the same office as J. If G is assigned to Utah, P must also be assigned to Utah. 1. Which of the following is an acceptable assignment of trainees to offices? Iowa Maine Texas Utah (A) G J F, L H, K, P (B) G, J H, L F, K P (C) H F, K J, L G, P (D) L, H F, K J G, P (E) L, P J F, K G, H 2. If G is assigned to Utah and if both F and H are assigned to Texas, which of the following lists all those trainees and only those trainees who will be assigned to an office in which there is no other trainee? (A) J (B) K (C) L (D) J, L (E) K, L 3. If J is assigned to Utah and H is assigned to Maine, which of the following must also be assigned to Utah? (A) F (B) G (C) K (D) L (E) P 4. If K is assigned to Utah, each of the following could be assigned to Maine EXCEPT (A) F (B) G (C) H (D) L (E) P 5. If F is assigned to Iowa. L is assigned to Maine, and G is assigned to Utah, then J must be assigned to either (A) Iowa or Maine (B) Iowa or Texas (C) Maine or Texas (D) Maine or Utah (E) Texas or Utah 6. If J is to be assigned to Texas, G is to be assigned to Utah, and none of the offices is to be assigned three trainees, how many acceptable combinations of assignments are there to select from? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (E) Five Question 7 is based on the following table. TESUL TS OF A CONTROLLED STUDY OF THE EFFECTS OF CHEWING GUM ON TOOTH DECAY IN CHILDREN Average total number of new cavities per child over the course of three years Children who regularly chewed gum sweetened with X 4.0 Children who regularly chewed gum sweetened with Y 1.5 Children who did not chew gum 2.5 7. Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain the difference among the children who chewed gum sweetened with X, the children who chewed gum sweetened with Y, and the children who did not chew any gum? (A) X, but not Y, consists of a substance that helps to protect teeth against harmful substances present in other foods. (B) The children who did not chew any gum during the study ate fewer sweet foods than did either the children who chewed gum sweetened with X or the children who chewed gum sweetened with Y. (C) The action of chewing gum stimulates the production of saliva, which contains a substance that helps fight tooth decay, but X, unlike Y, is a contributing factor to tooth decay. (D) Each group of children who chewed gum during the study brushed their teeth more often than did the children who did not chew gum during the study, but the children who chewed gum sweetened with Y brushed their teeth less often than did the children who chewed gum sweetened with X. (E) The action of chewing gum improves the circulation of blood in the jaw and strengthens the roots of adult teeth, but it also causes baby teeth to fall out more quickly than they would otherwise. 8. In the last few decades, grassy wetlands, essential to the nesting and breeding of ducks, geese, swans, and most other species of waterfowl, have been extensively drained and cultivated in southern Canada and the northern United States, Duck populations in North American have plummeted during this time, but populations of swans and geese have been affected less dramatically. Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain the difference mentioned above? (A) Prohibition of hunting of waterfowl is easier to enforce in areas under cultivation than in wild lands. (B) Most geese and swans nest and breed farther north than ducks do, in areas that still are not cultivated. (C) Land that has been harvested rarely provides food suitable for waterfowl. (D) Goose and swan populations decline in periods of drought, when breeding sites are fewer. (E) Because they are larger than ducks, geese and swans have a harder time finding protected nesting sites in areas that are cultivated. 9. A researcher found that, in proportion to their body weights, children eat more carbohydrates than adults do. Children also exercise more than adults do. The researcher hypothesized that carbohydrate consumption varies in direct proportion to the calorie demands associated with different levels of exercise. Which of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the researcher's hypothesis? (A) More carbohydrates are eaten per capita in nations where the government spends more per capita on public exercise programs. (B) Children who do not participate in organized sports tend to eat fewer carbohydrates than children who participate in organized sports. (C) Consumption of increased amounts of carbohydrates is a popular tactic of runners preparing for long-distance races. (D) Periods of physical growth require a relatively higher level of carbohydrate consumption than otherwise. (E) Though carbohydrates are necessary for the maintenance of good health, people who consume more carbohydrates are not necessarily healthier. Questions 10-16 Each day of a seven-day flower show a featured all display of one type of flower: daisy, geranium, iris, petunia, rose, tulip zinnia. Each type of flower will be featured on exactly one of the seven days. The flower show will begin on Sunday and run through the following Saturday. Because of suppliers' schedules, the order of the featured displays is subject to the following restrictions: The iris display and the tulip display must be featured on consecutive days, beginning with either the iris display or the tulip display. The daisy display and the zinnia display must be featured on consecutive days. beginning with either the daisy display or the zinnia display. Sunday, Monday, and Tuesday are the only days available for the tulip display. Sunday and Saturday are the only days available for the rose display. 10. The following can be the schedule of displays featured in the first five days of the show Sunday Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday (A) Daisy Zinnia Tulip Iris Rose (B) Geranium Tulip Petunia Iris Zinnia (C) Iris Tulip Zinnia Geranium Daisy (D) Tulip Iris Petunia Daisy Zinnia (E) Rose Zinnia Daisy Tulip Iris 11. If the rose display is featured on Sunday and the geranium display on Monday, which of the following displays must be featured on Wednesday? (A) Daisy (B) Iris (C) Petunia (D) Tulip (E) Zinnia 12. If the daisy display and the petunia display are featured on Friday and Saturday, respectively, geraniums must be the featured display on either (A) Monday or Tuesday (B) Monday or Wednesday (C) Tuesday or Wednesday (D) Tuesday or Thursday (E) Wednesday or Thursday 13. If the daisy display is featured on Tuesday, which of the following must be true about the order of the displays? (A) Geraniums are featured on Thursday or on Friday. (B) Irises are featured on Friday or on Saturday. (C) Roses are featured on Sunday. (D) Tulips are featured on Sunday. (E) Zinnias are featured on Monday or on Tuesday. 14. If the daisy display is featured on Sunday, then the petunia display must be featured on either (A) Monday or Tuesday (B) Tuesday or Wednesday (C) Wednesday or Thursday (D) Thursday or Friday (E) Friday or Saturday 15. If the geranium display is featured on Saturday, there is a total of how many different flower displays any one of which could be featured on Wednesday? (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five (E) Six 16. If the zinnia display is featured on Wednesday and the petunia display is featured on Thursday, which of the following displays must be featured immediately before the geranium display? (A) Daisy (B) Iris (C) Petunia (D) Rose (E) Tulip Questions 17-22 Exactly seven radio advertisements—F, G, H, K, L, M and P—are to be aired once each during one radio program. The advertisements are to be aired in two groups, group 1 and group 2, according to the following conditions: One of the groups must have three consecutive advertisements; the other must have four. K, a longer advertisement, must be the middle advertisement in the group with three advertisements. G must be the first advertisement in its group. G must be in a different group from H. H must be in the same group as L and must be sometime after L. 17. Which of the following could be the division of advertisements into groups, with the advertisements listed in order within each group? Group 1 Group 2 (A) F, K, G M, L, P, H (B) G, K, F L, P, H, M (C) G, K, L H, M, P, F (D) G, L, M, H F, K, P (E) P, F, L, K G, F, M 18. If F is in the same group as L, which of the following must be in the same group as G? (A) H (B) K (C) L (D) M (E) P 19. Which of the following is a pair of advertisements that CANNOT be in a group together? (A) G and L (B) G and M (C) H and K (D) K and P (E) L and P 20. If G is in the group with four advertisements, which of the following is a pair of advertisements that must be aired in immediately adjacent positions? (A) F and M (B) G and P (C) K and L (D) K and P (E) M and P 21. If L is the third advertisement in a group, which of the following lists two advertisements that could be immediately adjacent to each other in a group? (A) F and G (B) G and P (C) H and P (D) K and L (E) K and M 22. If F is the next advertisement after K in a group, which of the following is a pair of advertisements that must be in a group together? (A) F and M (B) G and M (C) G and P (D) K and P (E) L and M 23. Experts removed a layer of eighteenth-century red paint from a figure in a painting by a sixteenth-century Italian artist, revealing a layer of green paint underneath. Since the green paint dates from the sixteenth century, the figure must have been green, not red, when the painting was completed in 1563.Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument? (A) The experts had been commissioned to restore the painting to the colors it had when it was completed. (B) X-rays reveal an additional layer of paint beneath the green paint on the figure. (C) Chemical analyses were used to determine the ages of the red paint and the green paint. (D) The red paint was added in the eighteenth century in an attempt to repair damage done in the late seventeenth century. (E) Red paint on the robe of another figure in the painting dates from the sixteenth century. 24. Although it is assumed that peacocks' magnificent tails function essentially to attract peahens, no one knows why it should be magnificent tails that give a competitive advantage in securing mates. One explanation is that peahens are more likely to mate with peacocks with magnificent tails than with peacocks that lack magnificent tails. Which of the following is an error of reasoning exemplified by the explanation? (A) Attributing to animals qualities that are characteristically human (B) Extending a conclusion that is true of only one species of a genus to all species of the genus (C) Offering as an explanation a hypothesis that in principle can be neither verified nor proved false (D) Offering the phenomenon that is to be explained as the explanation of that phenomenon (E) Assuming without warrant that peacocks with magnificent tails are likely to have other features strongly attractive to peahens 25. Whenever a French novel is translated into English, the edition sold in Britain should be in British English. If the edition sold in Britain were in American English, its idioms and spellings would appear to British readers to be strikingly American and thus to conflict with the novel's setting. The recommendation is based on which of the following assumptions? (A) The authors of French novels are usually native speakers of French. (B) A non-British reader of a novel written in British English will inevitably fail to understand the meanings of some of the words and idioms in the novel. (C) No French novel that is to be sold in Britain in English translation is set in the United States. (D) A British reader of a British novel will notice that the idioms and spellings used in the novel are British. (E) Most French novels are not translated into both British English and American English. SECTION 6 Time—30 minutes 38 Questions 1. If the theory is self-evidently true, as its proponents assert, then why does---it still exist among well-informed people? (A) support for (B) excitement about (C) regret for (D) resignation about (E) opposition to 2. Although the ---of cases of measles has ---, researchers fear that eradication of the disease, once believed to be imminent, may not come soon. (A) occurrence.. continued (B) incidence.. declined (C) prediction.. resumed (D) number.. increased (E) study.. begun 3. Nothing---his irresponsibility better than his--- delay in sending us the items he promised weeks ago. (A) justifies.. conspicuous (B) characterizes.. timely (C) epitomizes.. unnecessary (D) reveals.. conscientious (E) conceals.. inexplicable 4. The author did not see the---inherent in her scathing criticism of a writing style so similar to her own. (A) disinterest (B) incongruity (C) pessimism (D) compliment (E) symbolism 5. Whereas the Elizabethans struggled with the transition from medieval---experience to modern individualism, we confront an electronic technology that seems likely to reverse the trend, rendering individualism obsolete and interdependence mandatory. (A) literary (B) intuitive (C) corporate (D) heroic (E) spiritual 6. Our biological uniqueness requires that the effects of a substance must be verified by---experiments, even after thousands of tests of the effects of that substance on animals. (A) controlled (B) random (C) replicated (D) human (E) evolutionary 7. Today water is more---in landscape architecture than ever before, because technological advances have made it easy, in some instances even ---to install water features in public places. (A) conspicuous.. prohibitive (B) sporadic.. effortless (C) indispensable.. intricate (D) ubiquitous.. obligatory (E) controversial.. unnecessary Directions: In each of the following questions, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by five lettered pairs of words or phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair. 8. TERROR: FEAR:: (A) craving: desire (B) inclination: liking (C) sympathy: empathy (D) urgency: lack (E) alibi: excuse 9. FEED: HUNGER:: (A) reassure: uneasiness (B) penetrate: inclusion (C) abandon: desolation (D) transfer: location (E) fertilize: growth 10. PESTLE: GRIND:: (A) scissors: sharpen (B) spice: flavor (C) spoon: stir (D) hammer: swing (E) fan: rotate 11. DISSEMBLE: HONESTY:: (A) smile: amiability (B) snub: politeness (C) disagree: error (D) flee: furtiveness (E) elate: exuberance 12. SYNOPSIS: CONCISENESS:: (A) distillate: purity (B) mutation: viability (C) replication: precedence (D) illusion: quickness (E) icon: charity 13. MEDIATION : COMPROMISE:: (A) exclamation: remark (B) approbation: acclaim (C) election: legislation (D) prosecution: conviction (E) conclusion: evaluation 14. DEMOGRAPHY: POPULATION:: (A) agronomy: farm (B) astronomy: planets (C) chemistry: heat (D) meteorology: weather (E) genetics: adaptation 15. EQUIVOCATION: TRUTH (A) rhetoric: persuasion (B) obfuscation: clarity (C) metaphor: description (D) repetition: boredom (E) conciliation: appeasement 16. CRAVEN: ADMIRABLE:: (A) unruly: energetic (B) listless: attractive (C) deft: awkward (D) trifling: amusing (E) volatile: passionate Bracken fern has been spreading from its woodland strongholds for centuries, but the rate of encroachment into open countryside has lately increased alarmingly through- out northern and western Britain. A tough competitor, 5) bracken reduces the value of grazing land by crowding out other vegetation. The fern is itself poisonous to livestock, and also encourages proliferation of sheep ticks, which not only attack sheep but also transmit diseases. No less impor- tant to some people are bracken's effects on threatened 10) habitats and on the use of uplands for recreational pur- poses, even though many appreciate its beauty. Biological controls may be the only economic solution. One potentially cheap and self-sustaining method of halting the spread of bracken is to introduce natural enemies of the 15) plant. Initially unrestrained by predators of their own, foreign predators are likely to be able to multiply rapidly and overwhelm intended targets. Because bracken occurs throughout the world, there is plenty of scope for this approach. Two candidates, both moths from the Southern 20) Hemisphere, are now being studied. Of course, biological control agents can safely be released only if it can be verified that they feed solely on the target weed. The screening tests have so far been fraught with difficulties. The first large shipment of moths 25) succumbed to a disease. Growing enough bracken indoors is difficult, and the moths do not readily exploit cut stems. These are common problems with rearing insects for bio- logical control. Other problems can be foreseen. Policymakers need to 30) consider many factors and opinions such as the cost of control compared to existing methods, and the impact of the clearance of bracken on the landscape, wildlife, and vegetation. In fact, scientists already have much of the information needed to assess the impact of biological 35) control of bracken, but it is spread among many individ- uals, organizations, and government bodies. The potential gains for the environment are likely to outweigh the losses because few plants, insects, mammals, and birds live associated only with bracken, and many would benefit 40) from a return of other vegetation or from a more diverse mosaic of habitats. But legal consequences of attempts at biological control present a potential minefield. For exam- ple, many rural tenants still have the right of “estoyers” the right to cut bracken as bedding for livestock and 45) uses. What would happen if they were deprived of these rights? Once a biological control agent is released, it is difficult to control its speed. What consideration is due landowners who do not want to control bracken? Accord- ing to law, the release of the biological control agents must be 50) authorized by the secretary of state for the environment. But Britain lacks the legal and administrative machinery to assemble evidence for and against release. 17. Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage? (A) Studies suggest that biologicalcontrol of bracken will not be technically feasible. (B) Although biological control appears to be the best solution to bracken infestation, careful assessment of the consequences is required. (C) Environmentalists are hoping that laboratory technicians will find a way to raise large numbers of moths in captivity. (D) Bracken is currently the best solution to the proliferation of nonnative moth species. (E) Even after researchers discover the most economical method of pest control, the government has no authority to implement a control program. 18. According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred about sheep ticks? (A) They increase where bracken spreads. (B) They are dangerous only to sheep. (C) They are especially adapted to woodland. (D) They have no natural enemies. (E) They cause disease among bracken. 19. The author cites all of the following as disadvantages of bracken encroachment EXCEPT: (A) Bracken is poisonous to farm animals. (B) Bracken inhibits the growth of valuable vegetation. (C) Bracken indirectly helps spread certain diseases. (D) Bracken is aesthetically objectionable. (E) Bracken disturbs habitats that some people would like to protect. 20. The final paragraph can best be described as (A) a summation of arguments presented in previous paragraphs (B) the elimination of competing arguments to strengthen a single remaining conclusion (C) an enumeration of advantages to biological control (D) an expansion of the discussion from the particular example of bracken control to the general problem of government regulation (E) an overview of the variety of factors requiring further assessment 21. It can be inferred from the passage that it is advantageous to choose as the biological control agent a predator that is foreign to the targeted environment for which of the following reasons? (A) Conservation groups prefer not to favor one native species over another. (B) All local predators have already been overwhelmed by the target species. (C) Local predators cannot be effectively screened since they already exist in the wild. (D) There is little risk of an artificially introduced foreign predator multiplying out of control. (E) Native predator species are generally limited by their own predators. 22. It can be inferred from the passage that the screening tests performed on the biological control agent are designed primarily to determine (A) its effectiveness in eliminating the target species (B) the response of local residents to its introduction (C) the risk it poses to species other than the target (D) its resistance to the stress of shipment (E) the likelihood of its survival indoors 23. As it is discussed in the passage, the place of bracken within the forest habitat can best be described as (A) rapidly expanding (B) the subject of controversy (C) well established (D) circumscribed by numerous predators (E) a significant nutrient source Allen and Wolkowitz's research challenges the common claim that homework-waged labor performed at home for a company-is primarily a response to women workers' needs and preferences. By focusing on a limited geographical area in order to gather in-depth information, the authors have avoided the methodological pitfalls that have plagued earlier research on homework. Their findings disprove accepted notions about homeworkers: that they are unqualified for other jobs and that they use homework as a short-term strategy for dealing with child care. The authors conclude that the persistence of homework cannot be explained by appeal to such notions, for, in fact, homeworkers do not differ sharply from other employed women. Most homeworkers would prefer to work outside the home but are constrained from doing so by lack of opportunity. In fact, homework is driven by employers' desires to minimize fixed costs: homeworkers receive no benefits and are paid less than regular employees. 24. The passage is primarily concerned with (A) advocating a controversial theory (B) presenting and challenging the results of a study (C) describing a problem and proposing a solution (D) discussing research that opposes a widely accepted belief (E) comparing several explanations for the same phenomenon 25. According to the passage, which of the following has been generally believed about homework? (A) The benefits of homework accrue primarily to employers rather than to homeworkers. (B) Homework is prevalent predominantly in rural areas. (C) Homework is primarily a response to the preferences of women workers. (D) Few homeworkers rely on homework for the majority of their family income. (E) Most homework is seasonal and part-time rather than full-time and year-round. 26. Allen and Wolkowitz's research suggests that each of the following is true of most homeworkers EXCEPT: (A) They do not necessarily resort to homework as a strategy for dealing with child care. (B) Their family situations are not unlike those of other employed women. (C) They are as well qualified as women who work outside the home. (D) They perform professional-level duties rather than manual tasks or piecework. (E) They do not prefer homework to employment outside the home. 27. The passage suggests which of the following about previous research on homework? (A) It was conducted primarily with women who did not have extensive household respon- sibilities or care for small children at home. (B) It was conducted with homeworkers and companies over a large geographical area. (C) It indicated that women homeworkers had numerous opportunities to work outside the home. (D) It indicated that homeworkers usually work for companies that are close to their homes. (E) It indicated that homework was financially advantageous to large companies. 28. FLIPPANCY: (A) temperance (B) reliability (C) seriousness (D) inflexibility (E) reticence 29. FACETIOUS: (A) uncomplicated (B) prideful (C) earnest (D) laconic (E) forbearing 30. BUNGLE: (A) bring off (B) bail out: (C) give in (D) pull through (E) put together 31. STODGY: (A) nervous (B) incisive (C) exciting (D) talkative (E) happy 32. INIMITABLE: (A) enviable (B) reparable (C) amicable (D) unwieldy (E) commonplace 33. SERE: (A) lush (B) obstinate (C) immersed (D) fortunate (E) antiquated 34. VACUOUS: (A) courteous (B) exhilarated (C) modest (D) intelligent (E) emergent 35. PEDESTRIAN: (A) concise (B) attractive (C) mobile (D) delicate (E) imaginative 36. APPOSITE: (A) disposable (B) adjacent (C) vicarious (D) parallel (E) extraneous 37. BOMBAST: (A) kindness (B) nonthreatening motion (C) great effort (D) down-to-earth language (E) good-natured approval 38. LIMPID: (A) unfading (B) coarse (C) elastic (D) murky (E) buoyant � EMBED Equation.3 ��� � EMBED Equation.3 ��� 1 166 _1027851749.unknown _1027856267.unknown _1027856544.unknown _1027857110.unknown _1027857383.unknown _1027857339.unknown _1027857077.unknown _1027857026.unknown _1027856412.unknown _1027856432.unknown _1027856247.unknown _1027856067.unknown _1027853070.unknown _1027853871.unknown _1027852882.unknown _1027852310.unknown _1027852339.unknown _1027852355.unknown _1027852323.unknown _1027851775.unknown _1027851790.unknown _1027851762.unknown _1027849385.unknown _1027851506.unknown _1027851543.unknown _1027851682.unknown _1027851651.unknown _1027851524.unknown _1027851441.unknown _1027849429.unknown _1027849200.unknown _1027849258.unknown _1027849090.unknown _377152675.unknown _973668689.unknown _973512476.unknown _377152606.unknown _377152651.unknown _377140825.unknown