48轮机英语

http://www.crewcn.com 中华人民共和国海事局 2009年第5期海船船员适任统考 试题 中考模拟试题doc幼小衔接 数学试题 下载云南高中历年会考数学试题下载N4真题下载党史题库下载 （总第48期） 科目：轮机英语 试卷代号：805 适用对象：无限近洋航区3000kw及以上船舶二/三管轮 （本试卷卷面总分100分，及格分为70分，考试时间100分钟） 答题说明：请选择一个最合适的 答案 八年级地理上册填图题岩土工程勘察试题省略号的作用及举例应急救援安全知识车间5s试题及答案 ，并将该答案按答题卡要求。在其相应位置上用2B铅笔涂黑。第1题至88题，每题1分，第89题至96题，每题1.5分。 一、单项选择题 1. Diesel engines classified as reciprocating internal combustion engines because they____ A. use energy from fuel burned outside their cylinders B. burn fuel in a combustion chamber that moves back and forth C. burn fuel in a chamber where its energy moves a piston up and down D. a continuous combustion process to impart rotary motion to the pistons 2. The abbreviation “MIP” stands for _____ A. middle indication pressure B. mean indicated pressure C. mean indicated pitch D. middle indicated power 3. The term used to express the ignition quality of a particular fuel is _____ A. cetane number B. octane number C. ignition index number D. volatility point 4. The period when both inlet valves and exhaust valves are open is referred to as____ A. valve loop B. valve uniflow C. valve overlap D. valve grinding 5. Which of the following statements represents the function of the compression rings installed at the top of a diesel engine piston? A. Control the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber B. Transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner C. Prevent damage to ring groove inserts by action as a heat dam. D. Dissipate combustion chamber gas pressure by channeling it through the ring gap. 6. The gas loads on the engine structure are constrained by means of hydraulically preloaded_____ Which connect the bed plate, frame sections and cylinder jackets into a single unit. A. connecting rods B. mean bearing C. column D. the rods 7. ______of different thickness are inserted between the shells to enable adjustment of the bearing clearness. A. Screws B. Films C. Dises D. Shims 8. Compared to four-stroke/cycle engines, two-stroke/cycle diesel engines have the disadvantages of ____ A. less even torque B. higher cylinder head temperatures C. fewer power stroke per revolution D. greater weight/size requirements 9. During the fuel imection period, fuel pressure must exceed cylinder gas pressure to _____ A. ensure penetration and distribution of the fuel in the combustion chamber B. ensure the needle valve is flushed clean during each injection C. prevent combustion gas blowback into the open needle valve D. prevent reflected pressure waves when the needle valve closes 10. The upper piston rings in large, slow-speed, two-stroke cycle diesel engines are most effectively lubricated by oil ____ A. fed from mechanical lubricators B. thrown off from the main bearings C. supplied form wick fed drip lubricators D. flow from a centrifugal banjo oiler 11. In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system, the amount of coolant flowing through the heat exchange is controlled by the _____ A. section pressure regulator B. thermostatic bypass valve C. sea water temperature D. water level in the expansion tank 12. The purpose of an after-cooler is to ______ A. reduce the turbocharger operation temperature B. increase the pressure of the inlet air C. increase the density of the inlet air D. reduce the blower operation temperature 13. Compressed air is supplied by air compressors to _____ A. the air receivers B. the starting valves C. the cylinder covers D. the distributors 14. _____supplies pilot air to control the cylinder air start valves. A. An air receivers B. An indicator cock C. An air distributor D. A safety valve 15. Thermocouple pyrometers are used on large, main propulsion diesel engines to indicate the temperature of the ______ A. cooling water leaving each cylinder B. fuel oil entering the injector C. exhaust gases at various locations D. lube oil at the bearing suppliers 16. After starting a diesel engine, which of the listed operating conditions should be checked first? A. Air box pressure B. Lube oil pressure C. Exhaust temperatures D. Raw water pressure 17. A device which functions to bring a diesel engine to a full stop to protect it from damage is known as a/an _____ A. torque limiter B. over-speed trip C. over-speed governor D. load limit governor 18. Air cocks, usually positioned at the ______in a circulating systems, is used to get rid of the air in the system. A. bending joint B. expansion tank C. weld D. the highest point 19. Some medium and high-speed diesel engines require reduction gear units to provide a useful propeller speed. In most reduction gears, the bull gear____ A. must churn the oil in the sump B. is connected to the propeller shaft C. is driven at the highest RPM D. compensates for alignment variations between the engine and pinion gear 20. Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is correct? A. combustion gases flow through the tubes B. flames impinge on the tubes C. combustion occurs in the tubes D. water flows through the tubes 21. A bypass line provided around a waste heat auxiliary boiler in a diesel engine exhaust system, may be used to avoid boiler______ A. corrosion at low engine loads B. erosion at high engine loads C. overload at high engine loads D. scaling at all exhaust temperature 22. The amount of chlonde content in the water of an auxiliary boiler can be reduced by _____ A. adding hydrazine B. blowing down the boiler C. adding phenolphthalein D. adding a sulfite chloride scavenger 23. Failure of the burner flame in an automatic auxiliary boiler would probably be a result of ______ A. water in the fuel oil B. broken high tension leads C. incorrect electrode setting D. full fuel pressure at the nozzle 24. Boiler water hardness is increased by _____ A. zero alkalimty to the water B. scale forming salts in the feedwater C. dissolved gases in the water D. improper operation of the DS heater 25. A screw pump belongs to ______according to its working principle A. recipmcating pumps B. positive displacement pumps C. dissolved gases in the water D. centripetal pumps 26. A centrifugal pump operating against a closed discharge valve has a/an_______ A. capacity of 100% B. efficiency of 0% C. internal slippage of 0% D. shut off horsepower rating of 100% 27. Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should______ A. determine the size of the gasket B. hang a bucket under the joint C. have a first aid kit on hand D. be sure no pressure exists in the line 28. It is possible to mount a double suction centrifugal pump impeller with the vanes facing in the wrong direction. This would cause the pump ______ A. head capacity to improve B. discharge to be reversed C. efficiency to decrease D. slippage to decrease 29. If a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed electric motor and produces a discharge pressure less than designed, the cause is probably_____ A. excessive pump speed B. excessive suction head C. worn wearing rings D. gross pump misalignment 30. Properties of a good refrigeration oil include_______ A. low wax content B. high pour point C. high viscosity D. low wax content, high pour point, high viscosity 31. The _____ only allows for adjustment of temperature in each room by the occupant manually controlling the air volume admitted. A. central air conditioning system B. high velocity system C. low velocity system D. single duct system 32. The process of adding moisture to air to increase the relative humidity is known as______ A. sublimation B desiccation C. humidification D. miniaturization 33. Sludgy may form in the crankcase of an air conditioning compressor as a result of _____ A. bubbling refrigerant B. overheating and oxidation C. lowered operating temperatures D. reducing the cloud or floc point 34. Which of the equipment listed is most effective in processing bilge slops for overboard discharge A. a 100 PPM oily water separator B. assembling the lube oil purifier as a separator and aligning it to the bilge overboard C. a 15 PPM oily water separator D. a magnetic duplex strainer 35. When started, a complete oily water separating unit is first filled _____. The oily water mixture is then pumped through the inlet pipe into the coarse separating compartment. A. with dirty water B. with clean water C. by oily water D. by mixed water 36. Which is the pollution prevention equipment? A. booster pump B. evaporator C. incinerator D. cooler 37. Concerning the incinerator’s operation, which of the following is not correct? A. scavenging time should be more than 30 seconds before igniting B. the oil temperature of waste oil tank is 80-100℃ C. first igniting the incinerator with diesel oil when the temperature of hearth is about 600℃, the waste oil is drawn in. D. the ash from incinerator can be dumped into sea no distance limitation 38. Bacteria which live ____are said to be aerobic A. in the presence of oxygen B. without oxygen C. in the presence of nutrition D. without nutrition 39. For a purifier changing to a gravity disc with smaller hole diameter will move the interface towards the ______ A. bowl periphery B. bowl center C. upper surface D. lower surface 40. To ensure lube oil purifier working in normal condition, the interval between two sludgy discharging should not exceed ____ hours. A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 41. Which of the following problems will occur if a disk-type centrifugal lube oil purifier is not properly primed prior to admitting oil flow to the bowl? A. Contamination of the lube oil by emulsification will result B. The lube oil will not be subjected to the proper centrifugal force C. The lube oil will overheat and flash D. Oil will discharge from the heavy phase discharge port and be wasted 42. A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling plant by _____ A. the flashing of the feed water B. the condensation of the saltwater feed C. air ejectors, eductors, of a separate vacuum pump D. condensation of the distillate 43. On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator would you be more likely to find soft scale formation? A. Feed-water heater internal tube surfaces B. Internal distillate cooler tubes C. Flash chamber vertical surfaces D. pressure control valve 44. What type of valve is used to direct the flow of hydraulic fluid? A. relief valve B. direction control valve C. stop valve D. pressure control valve 45. Another name for the “swash plate” in the variable delivery pump is _____ A. tiltable disc B. gravity disc C. distributing disc D. catch plate 46. The drive motor will have a brake arranged to fail-safe, i.e. it will ___the load if power fails or machine is stopped. A. lift B. put C. take D. hold 47. If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass is over heating, the cause may be_____ A. increased pump speed B. excessive pump discharge pressure C. too low of a tilting box angle D. low pump speed 48. When the power is shut off, the wire____ A. becomes slack B. can not be paid out unless the brake is overhauled or recover wire unless manually operated C. will be let out because the brake is out of work D. may be pay out due to no power 49. An additive used to improve the ability of a lube oil to reduce friction is known as a/an ____ A. suppressant additive B. dispersant additive C. extreme pressure additive D. viscosity improver additive 50. Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to _____ A. protect the pump from fine soluble contaminants B. prevent solid particles from entering the pump C. prevent solid particles from entering the filter D. protect the directional control valves 51. Current changing in direction and rising and falling in value is ____ A. A.C. B. D.C. C. generator D. fresh water generator 52. The magnetic field is provided by electromagnet, so arranged that adjacent poles have_____ A. opposite polarity B. the same polarity C. negative polarity D. positive polarity 53. Prior to closing the breaker when paralleling two AC. generators, the recommended practice is to have the frequency of the incoming machine_____ A. slightly less than the line frequency B. the same as the line frequency C. slightly greater than the line frequency D. have nothing to do with the lien frequency 54. The power factor at which a paralleled A.C. generator operates is usually adjusted by the ____ A. connected load B. prime mover speed C. field excitation D. generator’s rated voltage 54. When you are making a high potential test on a piece of repaired electrical machinery, a rise in leakage current indicates ________ A. good insulation B. bad insulation C. high insulation power factor D. a high slot discharge factor 56. ______is not a part of the main switchboard on board. A. Busbar B. Load panel of main generator C. Paralleling panel D. Shore connection box 57. Usually, emergency electricity supplies to _____on board A. cargo winch B. windlass C. steering gear D. main air compressor 58. The ground terminal of a starter should be connected to _____ A. the common ground point B. the starter’s frame C. the communicator D. the starter’s mounting bolts 59. The separate supplies are connected in either star or delta formation. The star formation is most commonly used and requires ______ slip-rings on the alternator. A. two B. three C. four D. five 60. As a general rule, the first troubleshooting action to be taken in checking faulty electric control devices is to ________ A. draw a one line diagram of the circuitry B. test all fuses and measure the line voltage C. take megger readings D. insulate the apparatus from ground 61. When measuring AC current flow, you must always connect the meter ______ A. in series with the power source and load B. in parallel with the power source and load C. insuring correct polarity D. using the lowest range possible to prevent instrument damage 62. If a small electric motor is immersed in salt water it should be＿＿＿＿. Ⅰ. washed with free water; Ⅱ.dried in an oven A. only Ⅰ B. only Ⅱ C. both Ⅰand Ⅱ D. neither Ⅰnor Ⅱ 63. “AMIDSHIPS”refers to ________ A. back of vessel B. the middle portion of a ship C. a backward movement of a vessel D. across the ship, at right angles to the fore-and-aft centerline 64.______is the main cause to the damage of engine parts and excess wearing A. overload B. the odds of the load C. the default of engine parts D. overload and the odds of the load 65. After “finished with engine”, which of the following cannot be shut off by the duty engineer? A. fuel oil booster pump B. the main starting valve C. the sea chest D. the main cooling sea water pump 66. Which of the following is NOT a recommended safe practice? A. Securing equipment against slipping or drifting B. Operating machinery at its recommended speed C. Repairing loose handles on tools before using D. Using tools for purposes for which they are not designed 67. A class “C” fire would occur in _____ A. bedding B. pipe insulation C. paint D. a generator 68. If a fire occurs in the boiler room as a result of a leaking fuel line, you should FIRST______ A. notify the engineer on watch B. isolate and secure the piping C. throw sand on the fire D. extinguish the fire using a combination nozzle with applicator 69. Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent? A. Carbon dioxide is corrosive when exposed to fire B. Carbon dioxide should be applied slowly to a large engine room fire C. Its total cooling effect is far greater than water D. Its smothering effect is excellent for class B fires 70. As a duty engineer, as soon as you hear the fire emergency signal, you should ensure that the _______. A. ring buoys are thrown overboard B. engines are stopped C. fire pumps are started D. life preserves have been issued to everyone 71. When administering artificial respiration, it is of the utmost importance to ______ A. use the mouth-to-mouth method B. clear airways C. use rhythmic pressure method D. check the injured person’s hearbeat 72. What is the harmful effect of sulfur in a fuel? A. It causes excessive smoking and soot at low firing rates B. It doesn’t readily burn when combined with oxygen C. It clogs fuel oil strainers more often D. It forms a corrosive acid when mixed water or water vapor 73. _____, where minor repairs are carried out with a ship in service, often during a stay in port. This may be remote from a ship repair site. A. Voyage repairs B. Routine docking C. Damager repairs D. Conversion 74. When ship in the dock repairing, engine department should emphasize on the inspection of ______. A. sea valve chest and thruster B. steering gear and the shaft system C. sea water system D. fresh water system 75. The additional mark________ in the Classification Certificate for Machinery represents that personnel are watching at engine assembly control station and monitoring all machinery and electronic devices. A. BRC B.MCC C.AUT-0 D.AUT-1 76. Each completed page of the Oil Record Book must be signed by the _____ A. engineer on watch B. chief engineer C. chief mate D. master 77. The International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate required by MARPOL is issued to Chinese flag by the ____ A. IMO B.CCS C.USCG D.PICC 78. If________, the PSCO should proceed to a more detailed inspection. A. the PSCO’s general impression confirm a good standard of maintenance B. the certificates are valid C. the PSCO believes the ship doesn’t meet the requirements D. the PSCO can’t find deficiencies at first glance 79. The Port State Control officer may witness a fire drill carried out by the crew assigned to these duties on the ______ A. navigation log book B. engine room log book C. oil record book D. muster list 80. STCW78-95 Convention states that officer in charge of the engineering watch is the _______ representative A. ship-owner’s B. master’s C. chief engineer’s D. manager’s 81. In the event of minor emergencies when the machinery spaces unattended, ___________will be informed of malfunctions in the machinery by his cabin monitor. A. the chief engineer B. the engineer on cabin watch C. the bridge officer on watch D. the master 82. At an unsheltered anchorage the chief engineer officer shall consult with the master whether or not to ______ A. do engine repair work B. clean sea water filter C. maintain an underway watch D