CrackingGRE_PracticeTest2_all

Chapter 18 Practice Test 2 19 New GRE Test 2_10188;19.indd 447 1/31/2011 9:16:11 PM 4 4 8 | Cracking the New GRE Directions: You will be given a brief quotation that states or implies an issue of general interest and specific instructions on how to respond to that issue. You will have 30 minutes to plan and compose a response in which you develop a position on the issue according to the specific instructions. A response to any other issue will receive a score of zero. “Studying foodways—what foods people eat and how they produce, acquire, prepare, and consume them—is the best way to gain deep understanding of a culture.” Write an essay in which you take a position on the statement above. In developing and supporting your position, you should consider ways in which the statement might or might not hold true. SECTION 1: ISSUE TOPIC 19 New GRE Test 2_10188;19.indd 448 1/31/2011 9:16:11 PM Practice Test 2 | 4 4 9 Directions: You will be given a short passage that presents an argument, or an argument to be completed, and specific instructions on how to respond to that passage. You will have 30 minutes to plan and compose a response in which you analyze the passage according to the specific instructions. A response to any other argument will receive a score of zero. Note that you are NOT being asked to present your own views on the subject. Make sure that you respond to the specific instructions and support your analysis with relevant reasons and/or examples. Fossil evidence indicates that the blompus—an extremely large, carnivorous land mammal—inhabited the continent of Pentagoria for tens of thousands of years until its sudden decline and ultimate extinction about twelve thousand years ago. Scientists have determined that the extinction coincided with a period of significant climate change and with the arrival of the first humans. Some scholars theorize that the climate change so altered the distribution of plants and animals in the environment that the food chain upon which the blompus depended was irretrievably disrupted. Others contend that predation by humans is the more plausible explanation for the rapid population decline. Write a response in which you discuss specific evidence that could be used to decide between the proposed explanations above. SECTION 2: ARGUMENT TOPIC 19 New GRE Test 2_10188;19.indd 449 1/31/2011 9:16:12 PM 4 5 0 | Cracking the New GRE For questions 1 through 6, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text. 1 of 20 The (i)____________ with which a statement is conveyed is frequently more important to the listener in determining the intended meaning than the actual words (ii)____________ . For example, a compliment, when delivered sarcastically, will be perceived by the receiver as fairly insulting. Blank (i) Blank (ii) inflection implied pitch repudiated accuracy utilized 2 of 20 Though a film studio produces works that are (i)____________ and artistic, its priorities often dictate that creativity be (ii)____________ to a secondary position since the creative process can (iii)____________ the organization and hierarchy necessary to running a large company. Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii) expressive compared respond to tedious uplifted conflict with tiresome relegated coexist with 3 of 20 Science and religion each have core tenets that are considered ____________ ; however, because some scientific tenets are in conflict with some religious ones, these tenets cannot all be correct. historic axiomatic disputable ubiquitous empirical 4 of 20 Although most medical, preventative ointments commonly in use would have (i)____________ an infection, the particular one Helen applied to her sores actually, much to her dismay, (ii)____________ her (iii)____________ . Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii) surrendered to contributed to medicine exacerbated detracted from salve staved off disbursed with affliction 5 of 20 A single (i)____________ remark can easily ruin the career of a politician, so most are quickly trained to avoid such offhand remarks and instead stick to prepared talking points. This training can result in a lack of (ii)____________ , however, and elicit in merely (iii)____________ , lukewarm responses from crowds. Blank (i) Blank (ii) Blank (iii) elated spontaneity ardent glib equanimity tepid pedantic rigidity morose 6 of 20 Oscar Wilde’s The Importance of Being Earnest satirizes the ____________ nature of upper crust British society; its characters take trivial concerns seriously while glibly dismissing important ones. maladaptive insincere unusual insignificant shallow SECTION 3: VERBAL REASONING 19 New GRE Test 2_10188;19.indd 450 1/31/2011 9:16:12 PM Practice Test 2 | 4 5 1 Questions 7 through 8 are based on the following reading passage. In 1798, economist Thomas Robert Malthus stated in his “Essay on the Principle of Population” that “population increases in a geometric ratio, while the means of subsistence increases in an arithmetic ratio.” However, Malthus’s dire prediction of a precipitous decline in the world’s population has not come to pass. The miscalculations in what has come to be known as the Malthus Doctrine are partly due to Malthus’s inability to foresee the innovations that allowed vast increases in worldwide wheat production. In the late nineteenth century, the invention of the tractor staved off a Malthusian disaster. While the first tractors were not particularly powerful, the replacement of animals by machinery meant that land that had been devoted to hay and oats could now be reclaimed for growth of crops for human consumption. Nevertheless, the Malthusian limit might still have been reached if crop yield had not been increased. A natural way to increase crop yield is to supply the soil with additional nitrogen. In 1909, chemist Fritz Haber succeeded in combining nitrogen and hydrogen to make ammonia, the white powder version of which, when added to the soil, improves wheat production. Haber nitrogen, however, was not widely used until later in the twentieth century, largely due to farmers’ resistance to spreading an unnatural substance on their crops. Haber’s invention had a further drawback: If applied in incorrect quantities, the wheat crop would grow taller and thicker, eventually toppling over and rotting. Interestingly, in the late twentieth century the discovery of genetic engineering, which provides a means of increasing rice and maize production, met with equal resistance, this time from the environmental movement. Even without direct genetic engineering, it is likely that science will discover new methods to improve agricultural production. 7 of 20 According to the passage, which is of the following is true about Haber nitrogen? d Haber nitrogen is more effective at increasing the yield of wheat crops than that of maize or oat crops. d Undesired effects can result from the application of surplus quantities of Haber nitrogen. d Haber nitrogen was the first non-naturally occurring substance to be applied to crops as fertilizer. d Haber nitrogen may not be effective if applied at an improper time in wheat’s growth cycle. d Farmers were quick to adopt Haber nitrogen because it made their crops grow taller and thicker. 8 of 20 The passage implies all of the following EXCEPT d world food production has kept pace with world population growth d technological innovation is one factor that allowed for an increase in crop production d complex genetic structure can hinder the efficacy of scientifically induced genetic mutation d the Malthusian limit might well have been reached if new methods to increase crop production had not been found d a Malthusian disaster would have been ensured if it were not for the invention of genetic engineering SECTION 3: VERBAL REASONING 19 New GRE Test 2_10188;19.indd 451 1/31/2011 9:16:12 PM 4 5 2 | Cracking the New GRE 9 of 20 Which of the following, if it were to happen, would best accord with Malthus’s contention as it is stated in the first paragraph? d By 2040 the world’s population increases marginally, and food production keeps pace with demand. d By 2040 the world’s population decreases marginally, and food production outstrips demand. d By 2040 the world’s population remains unchanged, and food production declines slightly. d By 2040 the world’s population has significantly increased, and food production has increased slightly. d By 2040 the world’s population has significantly decreased, and food production has decreased slightly. 10 of 20 Replacing the word precipitous with which one of the following, would least affect the overall meaning of the sentence? d anticipated d deliberate d gradual d risky d sharp Questions 11 through 12 are based on the following reading passage. The dearth of natural resources on the Australian continent is a problem with which government officials there have long struggled. As long distance travel has become less of an obstacle, the tourism industry has become ever more important to the national economy. Tourism represents more than 10 percent of national export earnings annually, and in less developed regions such as the Western Territory, the percentage is much higher. Unfortunately, this otherwise rosy prospect has one significant cloud on the horizon. In recent years, there has been a move towards returning some of the land to the Aboriginal people. As Western society and culture have flourished on Australian soil, tribal people have been forced ever farther inland in an attempt to maintain their traditional ways of living, a desire that the government has striven to respect. One of the central beliefs of the Aboriginal religion is that certain natural formations have spiritual significance and must be treated accordingly. Strict guidelines determine who may visit these sites and at what times. Unfortunately, many of these sites are the very natural wonders tourists flock to see. If non-Aboriginal people are forbidden to visit these natural wonders, many may choose not to vacation in a region that sorely needs the income generated by tourism. The Australian government has dealt with this dilemma thus far by trying to support both sides. The Aboriginal council is still trying to put an end to such use of certain sites, however, and it remains to be seen whether philanthropic or economic desires will ultimately triumph. 11 of 12 In the context of the passage, which of the following most closely matches the meaning of the phrase “otherwise rosy prospect has one significant cloud on the horizon”? d A colorful sunset is marred by a dark storm cloud. d A generally promising future has a potential problem. d The view is beautiful but partially blocked. d The future of the Aboriginal people is doubtful. d Although the situation looks good, in reality it is hopeless. 12 of 12 Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply. According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of the current dispute between the Aborigines and the Australian government? W economic hardships in certain regions of the country W the influx of European value systems W limited natural resources in most of Australia SECTION 3: VERBAL REASONING 19 New GRE Test 2_10188;19.indd 452 1/31/2011 9:16:12 PM Practice Test 2 | 4 5 3 For questions 13 through 14, select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning. 13 of 20 George was a mercurial character; one moment he was optimistic about his prospects, and the next he was ____________ . W immoral W hopeful W witty W morose W dour W buoyant 14 of 20 Growing up in a wealthy suburb, she felt quite the ____________ as she began her first job as a llama caretaker on a rural farm. W tyro W concierge W agronomist W cultivator W neophyte W curator 15 of 20 William Shakespeare’s Macbeth was based upon a highly ____________ version of events that the playwright wrought from Raphael Holinshed’s Chronicles of England, Scotland, and Ireland; King Duncan’s death at the hand of Macbeth comprises the play’s only historical truth. W anachronistic W effusive W embellished W prosaic W serpentine W colored 16 of 20 While comic book artists such as Neal Adams demonstrated a more thorough mastery of human anatomy than did the generation that preceded them, some readers wondered whether the superheroes they drew were really supposed to be so ____________ that every detail of their musculatures would be visible through their clothing. W thewy W sinewy W superfluous W pneumatic W flocculent W atrophied SECTION 3: VERBAL REASONING 19 New GRE Test 2_10188;19.indd 453 1/31/2011 9:16:12 PM 4 5 4 | Cracking the New GRE Questions 17 through 18 are based on the following reading passage. One of the most curious structures in cellular biology is the telomere, a length of repeated bases located at the end of every chromosome that, unlike the rest of the DNA strand, carries no useful genetic information. While the telomere seems on the surface to be nothing more than a useless afterthought of DNA, a closer look proves that it is not only important, but also crucial to the functioning of any organism. Indeed, without this mundane structure, every cell division would be a step into senescence, and the onset of old age would begin at birth. Scientists have found that during cell division not every base of the DNA strand can be replicated, and many, especially those near the end, are lost. If, instead of telomeres, our chromosomes stored valuable genetic information at the end of the DNA strand, then cell division would cause our cells to lose the ability to code for certain information. In fact, many ailments associated with normal old age begin only after the telomere buffer has been exhausted through years of cell division. 17 of 20 Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply. Which of the following can reasonably be inferred based on the passage? W The length of the telomere buffer generally shortens with time. W Scientists once believed that telomeres served no useful purpose. W If DNA degradation were absent, then telomeres would be less important to human health. 18 of 20 The passage suggests that if telomere buffers did not exist d problems associated with aging would begin earlier in life d people would age so rapidly that almost no one would live past childhood d cellular senescence would probably be prevented by DNA bases d chromosomes would lose the ability to store genetic codes d DNA strands would contain only useful genetic information SECTION 3: VERBAL REASONING 19 New GRE Test 2_10188;19.indd 454 1/31/2011 9:16:12 PM Practice Test 2 | 4 5 5 Questions 19 through 20 are based on the following reading passage. Music education in America emerged in the early eighteenth century out of a desire to ensure that church goers could sing the weekly hymns in tune. In 1721, John Tufts, a minister, penned the first textbook for musical education entitled An Introduction to the Singing of Psalm Tunes. Tufts’s pedagogical technique relied primarily on rote learning, omitting the reading of music until a student’s singing abilities had improved. In the same year that Tufts’s publication emerged, Reverend Thomas Walter published The Ground Rules of Music Explained, which, while also focusing on preparing students to sing religious music, took a note-based approach by teaching students the rudiments of note reading from the onset. The “note versus rote” controversy in music education continued well into the mid-nineteenth century. With no curriculum to guide them, singing school teachers focused on either the rote or note method with little consistency. 19 of 20 The author discusses Tufts’s pedagogical technique in order to d suggest that rote learning is superior to note learning d present a contrast with Walter’s educational technique d argue that rote learning improves a student’s singing ability d show the origin of Walter’s educational techniques d show that rote learning was inconsistently practiced 20 of 20 Select the sentence in the passage that best describes the endurance of the tension between pedagogical techniques. SECTION 3: VERBAL REASONING 19 New GRE Test 2_10188;19.indd 455 1/31/2011 9:16:13 PM 4 5 6 | Cracking the New GRE Questions 1 through 8 each consist of two quantities, Quantity A and Quantity B. You are to compare the two quantities and choose the appropriate answer. In a question, information concerning one or both of the quantities to be compared is centered above the two columns. A symbol that appears in both columns represents the same thing in Quantity A as it does in Quantity B. 1 of 20 Quantity A Quantity B 0.15 3 20 d Quantity A is greater. d Quantity B is greater. d The two quantities are equal. d The relationship cannot be determined from the information given. 2 of 20 5 is r percent of 25 s is 25 percent of 60 Quantity A Quantity B r s d Quantity A is greater. d Quantity B is greater. d The two quantities are equal. d The relationship cannot be determined from the information given. 3 of 20 g and h are positive integers such that the value of g is twice the value of h. Quantity A Quantity B The ratio of g to 1 The ratio of 1 to h d Quantity A is greater. d Quantity B is greater. d The two quantities are equal. d The relationship cannot be determined from the information given. 4 of 20 Quantity A Quantity B The average (arithmetic mean) of 67, 78, x, and 101 The average (arithmetic mean) of 66, 79, x, and 102 d Quantity A is greater. d Quantity B is greater. d The two quantities are equal. d The relationship cannot be determined from the information given. 5 of 20 In each of the years 1989 and 1990, the total weight of recycled newspapers in a certain country increased by .79 million tons over the previous year. Quantity A Quantity B Percent increase in the weight of recycled newspapers in 1989 over 1988 Percent increase in the weight of recycled newspapers in 1990 over 1989 d Quantity A is greater. d Quantity B is greater. d The two quantities are equal. d The relationship cannot be determined from the information given. SECTION 4: QUANTITATIVE REASONING 19 New GRE Test 2_10188;19.indd 456 1/31/2011 9:16:13 PM Practice Test 2 | 4 5 7 SECTION 4: QUANTITATIVE REASONING 6 of 20 Quantity A Quantity B The total weight of m peanuts at a weight of n + 3 mg each The total weight of n almonds at a weight of m + 3 mg each d Quantity A is greater. d Quantity B is greater. d The two quantities are equal. d The relationship cannot be determined from the information given. 7 of 20 Quantity A Quantity B 527(575) 528(115) d Quantity A is greater. d Quantity B is greater. d The two quantities are equal. d The relationship cannot be determined from the information given. 8 of 20 Alejandro has a six-sided die with faces numbered 1 through 6. He rolls the die twice. Quantity A Quantity B The probability that both rolls are even The probability that neither roll is a multiple of 3 d Quantity A is greater. d Quantity B is greater. d The two quantities are equal. d The relationship cannot be determined from the information given. 9 of 20 If 4(r – s) = –2, then what is r, in terms of s ? d -s 2 d s- 1 2 d s- 3 2 d s + 2